Does every function have an inverse function?
NO
No, not every function has an inverse function. A function has an inverse if and only if each output of the function corresponds to a unique input. This means that if two different inputs have the same output, then there cannot be an inverse function for that given function. Mathematically, if a function is one-to-one (injective) and onto (surjective), then it has an inverse function.
For example, a function y = x^2 does not have an inverse function as multiple values of x give the same value of y. However, a function y = x^3 is one-to-one, and therefore has an inverse function.
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